<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>> I asked for information on any significant problems found in Celiacs ingesting "gluten free" foods in Europe where the definition is different. I received interesting replies which I summarize below. Incidentally, the CSA handbook, 2nd edition is where I had read of the 3% gluten content, states: " As long as the international defintion of "gluten free" remains at 3% of total weight allowed as gluten-the celiac customer will need to review food items from foreign countries............." "Note that the term "gluten free" may be used on the food label .......since the food item will meet the 3% level of weight definition currentlly set by the international standards of the Codex Alimentarius Committee seated in Rome, Italy." (could this be a misprint?) A person from Poland disagrees with the above definitions - he states that the allowable content is 10 micrograms per 1g and it is 0.001% A celiac who used to live in the UK said she ate bread containing wheat starch and was violently ill (the bread was labelled GF) Another UK celiac stated that although the bread is available on prescription, she doesn't touch it as it upsets her stomach Another eats the bread with wheat starch and after 2 years his villi biopsy are"AOK" Yet another who is ultra sensitive to gluten eats the bread containing "gluten free wheat starch" and her biopsy shows full recovery. In conclusion, there seems to be some confusion over the definitions and different people react differently. The fact that some biopsies show full recovery while ingesting wheat starch is food for thought! Thank you all for your replies Jane