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Hi all,
I've read that celiac disease is an autosomal recessive trait, which I
understood to mean that one would need a recessive gene from each side
of one's family.  This is making less and less sense to me as I think about
it.  I know that the environmental trigger must follow for the disease to
express itself but does anyone have a better understanding of the predisposing
genetic situation that must exist first?
Many thanks,
lm in nashville