<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>>

In a message dated 95-12-16 00:38:06 EST, you write:

>> I have wondered if there really is a
>>greater incidence in Europe due to the genetic link of Europeans?  Just
>>because it is 1:200 in Europe should we then expect that all Asians should
>>also be 1:200?  All Eskimos?  All Africans?
>
>The speaker was trying to point up that because such a large portion of the
>US population is of European background, the incidence of CD in the US
>should
>more closely reflect the European pattern.  As for other ethnic groups, I
>haven't heard any numbers.

Actually I was trying to point out that I would expect the incedence in the
US to be less because we (USA) also have people from places other than Europe
-- Asia, Africa, South America, etc.  That is why I wondered if the incedence
might actually be less than in Europe.

>>I have no doubt there is some underdiagnosis in U.S. (and elsewhere) -- but
>>is it really that bad?  I don't think U.S. doctors are really any worse
>>than
>>in other parts of the world.  In fact, I would hope they have more
>>informaton than most.
>
>I agree that U.S. doctors are generally as good as any others in the world
>but I think CD is a blind spot for them!

Our doctor found it right away -- while some doctors may have blind spots --
I don't think it is fair to characterize all US MDs or all in other parts of
the world in one way.