<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>> In a message dated 95-12-16 00:38:06 EST, you write: >> I have wondered if there really is a >>greater incidence in Europe due to the genetic link of Europeans? Just >>because it is 1:200 in Europe should we then expect that all Asians should >>also be 1:200? All Eskimos? All Africans? > >The speaker was trying to point up that because such a large portion of the >US population is of European background, the incidence of CD in the US >should >more closely reflect the European pattern. As for other ethnic groups, I >haven't heard any numbers. Actually I was trying to point out that I would expect the incedence in the US to be less because we (USA) also have people from places other than Europe -- Asia, Africa, South America, etc. That is why I wondered if the incedence might actually be less than in Europe. >>I have no doubt there is some underdiagnosis in U.S. (and elsewhere) -- but >>is it really that bad? I don't think U.S. doctors are really any worse >>than >>in other parts of the world. In fact, I would hope they have more >>informaton than most. > >I agree that U.S. doctors are generally as good as any others in the world >but I think CD is a blind spot for them! Our doctor found it right away -- while some doctors may have blind spots -- I don't think it is fair to characterize all US MDs or all in other parts of the world in one way.