<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>> Our daughter was diagnosed with Celiac Disease through positive blood work and positive bowel biopsies about 8 months ago. She is now 3 yrs. old. Here is my question: Does this mean that either my husband or myself MUST have the gene for Celiac Disease? OR can it skip generations? or how does it work? I did the gene testing through enterolab and it showed me to have DQ1 (not DQ2 or DQ8) and my stool test was normal. Although, I have many of the atypical symptoms. My Mom had positive stool testing through enterolab and has the DQ2 gene (she has the classic symptoms). My husband has no symptoms... and hasn't had any testing. So... Did it/can it skip a generation since my Mom and my daughter have CD or does this mean that my husband must have the gene... because I didn't? Thank you for any insight. Genetics is confusing. Dosha Anderson Texas *Please provide references to back up claims of a product being GF or not GF*