Many thanks to Liz and Elisi who answered.  I've been collecting GI
"diagnoses" of close relatives--hence, my question.  Living family have more
or less come to expect unexpected questions from me since I began
researching our genealogy some years ago.  I've mentioned previously that in
going low-carb 2+ yrs ago, I discovered in myself a probable grain
intolerance.  At least all the different bowel problems I'd had for years
seemed to resolve themselves but recur whenever I'd eat grains.
Interestingly, though, while on vacation recently and deliberately indulging
in some "treats" with my family--and expecting bowel consequences as a
result--I had no problems other than a little gas.  And I emphasize a
"little,"  though I had expected.....LOL ("let 'er rip")......a lot.  I'm
not sure why I had a lack of problems other than possibly because I'd had no
grains at all for 3+ months and my system was able to tolerate the amounts I
ate.  Is this likely the answer?  I read occasionally that other listers
seem to become even more sensitive to the effects of grains after going
paleo, whereas in my case the opposite seems to be true.

......The food was tasty while it lasted and served a familial purpose, but
not to press my luck I am back to paleo which agrees with me without
question.

Theola, who made yummy salmon jerky today and listened to the usual
complaint that "the house smells like a bait shop."  ;-)