ME Wood writes:
<<  Paleolithic man lived by definition before agriculture and therefore
 before cities and industrialisation. Therefore he must have subsisted by
 hunting,gathering and fishing. Before agriculture any wild grains would
 be harvested, if at all, when the seeds were ripe and are unlikely to
 have been a major part of the diet.

I'm at a loss about the interpretation that Paleolithic man was unlikely to
have included seeds as a major part of the diet, if they were present at all.
Where does this come from?  Is there any evidence?  Certainly agricultural
grains are not the only seeds available to or exploited by humans.  Non-
cultivated seeds have been an important part of the diet in pre-agricultural
populations, as well as for many populations with agriculture.  I think this
statement reflects a bias (supposition?) not supported by data or might refer
to a specific econiche.

For instance, pre-agricultural man in North America exploited many native
seeds including members of the genera _Chenopodium_ and _Amaranthus_, the
Asteraceae family, the Cruciferae family, the genus _Portulaca_, to name a
few.  Pre-agricultural man in the Old World also exploited seeds including
_Chenodium_ and many others.  These seeds are very nutritious, easy to gather
and prepare.  Where's the evidence that they were absent from the diet or
neglected as a food source?

Linda Scott Cummings, Ph.D.
Paleo Research
Golden, CO