Hi!
    Thanks for enlightening us on the issue of the UDP boycott. I would appreciate it if you help answer the following questions that I have.

1. Why did the party wait this long to clarify issues around its boycott of the elections (assuming this release is a new one)? The reason I ask is because many have already heard versions from other sources many of which are based on speculation and the impact of this release might be diluted.

2. Since the party was aware of some electoral mal-practices that occurred months, weeks or days before the presidential elections and which in effect placed it at a disadvantage, why did it go ahead and contest the elections? Isn't the party's participation in the elections an indication of its acceptance of the rules no matter how flawed? If the party had been the winner in these elections, would it have protested and cancelled the results because the elections were carried out under flawed conditions? If not, why should the party protest when it lost?

3. Since the party has a basis for declaring electoral malpractices in the presidential elections, has the validity of any of the results been challenged in a court of law. If not, why?

4. The party has made a list of demands. Is there a framework for enforcing those demands or would the demands "self-downgrade" to requests in the absence of the ability to enforce them?

Thank you in advance for your co-operation. Have a good weekend.
                                                                                                Buharry.

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