<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>>

I asked for information on any significant problems found in Celiacs ingesting
"gluten free" foods in Europe where the definition is different.  I received
interesting replies which I summarize below.  Incidentally, the CSA handbook,
2nd edition is where I had read of the 3% gluten content, states: " As long as
the international defintion of "gluten free" remains at 3% of total weight
allowed as gluten-the celiac customer will need to review food items from
foreign countries............."  "Note that the term "gluten free" may be used
on the food label .......since the food item will meet the 3% level of weight
definition currentlly set by the international standards of the Codex
Alimentarius Committee seated in Rome, Italy."  (could this be a misprint?)

A person from Poland disagrees with the above definitions - he states that the
allowable content is 10 micrograms per 1g and it is 0.001%

A celiac who used to live in the UK said she ate bread containing wheat starch
and was violently ill (the bread was labelled GF)

Another UK celiac stated that although the bread is available on prescription,
she doesn't touch it as it upsets her stomach

Another eats the bread with wheat starch and after 2 years his villi biopsy
are"AOK"

Yet another who is ultra sensitive to gluten eats the bread containing "gluten
free wheat starch" and her biopsy shows full recovery.

In conclusion, there seems to be some confusion over the definitions and
different people react differently.  The fact that some biopsies show full
recovery while ingesting wheat starch is food for thought!

Thank you all for your replies
Jane