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The abstract needs to be read with care. Maybe the full article is
clearer.

The study ended in 1994 - management of CD has no doubt improved
significantly since then.

The abstract talks about "patients hospitalized with celiac disease".
Does this mean people admitted because they had CD or people admitted
for any reason who also had CD. Whatever, this group of people would
appear to be less healthy than the general population - they might also
be less healthy than people who have CD.

The prevelance of CD amongst adults has only recently been recognised.
In 1965 the childhood version of CD was probably widely recognised. But
accurate diagnosis of adult onset would have been difficult? Could it be
that many of the people included in the study have the childhood version
of CD?

Whatever, those diagnosed with CD would probably have displayed more
symptoms than those of us who have recently been diagnosed on the basis
of the modern blood test. Could this mean that they had a worst case of
CD than many people diagnosed with CD today?

Most of the diseases with elevated mortality risks are those which were
already known to be commonly associated with celiac disease. I wonder if
there are some diseases for which there is a reduced mortality risk.

I'd be grateful if someone could interpret what at first sight appears
to be a rather scary paper.

Colin Bye

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