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Okay, in the spirit of "there are no stupid questions...."

I have just learned that a relative on my father's side was diagnosed
relatively late in life with "gluten intolerance", and told to stay gluten
free for a 3-5 year period, and then gradually re-introduce gluten.

Is there a temporary condition such as this?  If so, how does it differ from
true celiac disease?  Or is it likely that she was truly celiac and her case
was mishandled?

Thanks for your input, Lynn