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Subject:
From:
Fran Gillespie <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Mon, 22 Jun 1998 11:24:24 -0700
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<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>>

Kemp wrote:

Ambiguous. Do you mean 90% of Type IIs have insulin resistance OR 90% of
diabetics are Type II?  Insulin resistance defines Type II, Hence all
have
it.

>>>> I mean 90% of diabetics have Type 2 diabetes.

As for insulin resistance- there are varying degrees such as MODY and
others who do not have the classic presentation, and fall somewhere in
between- have "sputtering pancreas" that is they have irregular insulin
production.


  Based on refereed reports in the medical literature, roughly
5% of biopsed celiacs have Type 1 diabetes (versus 0.5% in the general
population) and roughly 5% have Type II (same as in general population).

Medical management and advice for the two types is quite different.

>>>>>I go on the assumption that those with diabetes already have this basic
knowledge.  That the Type 1 diabetic MUST inject insulin, and Type 2's have a
variety of treatment options- that also include insulin, meds, diet &
exercise.

I don't  understand what you mean by medical management for the two
types being "quite different", other than the mandatory insulin
requirement for Type 1's.

In fact, I see more common ground between type 1's & 2- in that the
basic management recommendations are the same.

Watching carb intake, using exercise to stimulate metabolic function,
and all of the potential complications are exactly the same.

Could you please explain the other differences?

~fran

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