This is probably as much as you can stand of this thread, but here's the
latest . . .

MDK

In a message dated 98-01-02 12:56:15 EST, [log in to unmask] writes:

> >>
>  >How is an e-mail different from a telegram?  I recall many cases from my
>  >freshman contracts case book about whether offer and acceptance could be
>  >formed by telegram.  I seem to recall that the rule is that if the offer
>  >was made by telegram, then the acceptance, if sent telegraphically, was
>  >effective when sent (not received), but if the offer were made by mail,
>  >then the telegraphed acceptance had to be received to be effective, and
>  >vice versa.  Given that the telegraph was the 19th century mode of instant
>  >communication, it made commercial sense for business folks to rely upon
>  >telegraphed communications.  Two decades ago, before fax became
ubiquitous,
>  >telex had supplanted the telegram as the means for doing certain kinds of
>  >business (primarily international), and Western Union Mailgrams were used
>  >for giving notice.  Just as faxed offers, acceptances, and notices are
>  >becoming more prevalent and accepted, so too will e-mails in the near
> future.
>  >
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>