In a message dated 12/26/00 12:41:39 AM Eastern Standard Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:

> >     Well then, Mr. Issodhos, let me ask you the question.  Do you think
>  there
>  >  is or should be any relationship between the law and fairness?
Certainly
>  >  the law must (ideally) derive some sort of authority from the people.
>  >     From reading your posts I get the impression that you are more
> concerned
>  >  with describing the status quo than with analyzing it.  Might a
> government
>  >  not be better which could withstand criticism?

   Now, in response to the first half of your first question:
Your use of the word "is" implies reality.  There IS not, nor has there ever
been, a relationship between "fairness" and the law.  Dan Koenig's posting
provided an excellent encapsulation of this reality.

    Rather than have you and others sit back and let me carry the tune to
YOUR claims, premises, and questions I will require you, or Larry, or Vunch
to provide a specific definition for how you are using the terms "fairness"
and "law".  For example, are you referring to the application of the law,
origination of the law, or the law itself?  But most importantly, what do you
mean by "fairness"?

  To save time on your second question, what do you mean by "deriving some
sort of authority"?  Do you mean "the people" must be engaged in creating the
law, simply respecting the law, or something else?
Yours,
Issodhos