<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>>
 
> and lack of required disclosure for "inert" ingredients in
> prescription
 
If something is prescribed.. to a Celiac.. for the disease of Celiac.. or
if the doctor 'knows' the person is Celiac.. wouldn't the doctor himself
become liable for prescribing a drug which is not safe?
Wouldn't it be 'malpractice' or 'criminal disregard' or something like
that?
Nothing makes things move faster than getting lawyers and $$$ and the
spectre of getting their licenses revoked.. to make doctors/drug
companies .. sit up and take notice?
Just a thought.
 
Who loves ya.
Tom http://www.nucleus.com/watchman