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O.K. I understand that the gene for celiac has been identified, but my memory of high school biology is a little rusty (nearly 49 years will do that!), so can someone with expertise help me understand something?

If only one parent has the gene for celiac and passes it along to the kid, can the kid still get celiac, or does the kid need to get the genes from both parents? (Celiac gene dominant?) Would the kid be a carrier, if only one gene is present?

And my understanding is that if someone has the gene, but doesn't ever get exposed to whatever the trigger is, most likely a virus, they may be symptom free until such time as the trigger hits.

I feel like an idiot, but for some reason, I can't wrap my head around this and don't recall reading much about it.  I know I heard one of the guru doctors speak about this about 15 years ago, but much has changed..

I'm asking because I'm wondering about my grandkids, one of whom was just test (not DNA), and came back negative. She even said to me, that it doesn't mean she doesn't have the gene. I'm considering getting my sons to do the DNA test. Supposedly, they don't have celiac, either...for now.

Please....if you respond to this, I hope you're speaking from a professional area of expertise or are relating what a doctor or microbiologist told you...or can recommend a source for information.

Thanks.

Lin


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