<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>>

From my understanding, you can have the genes associated with celiac without
the disease manifesting itself, but if you don't have the genes, you cannot
have celiac disease? Is this 100% correct?

Since I am pregnant and due next month, I want to know whether I will
automatically pass my celiac genes onto my child. Can anyone elucidate upon
this? Please only respond with answers supported by clinical data.

Thank you,

Joan in PA

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