<<Disclaimer: Verify this information before applying it to your situation.>>

Our daughter was diagnosed with Celiac Disease through positive blood work
and positive bowel biopsies about 8 months ago.  She is now 3 yrs. old.

Here is my question:  Does this mean that either my husband or myself MUST
have the gene for Celiac Disease?  OR can it skip generations?  or how
does it work?

I did the gene testing through enterolab and it showed me to have DQ1 (not
DQ2 or DQ8) and my stool test was normal.  Although, I have many of the
atypical symptoms.  My Mom had  positive stool testing through enterolab
and has the DQ2 gene (she has the classic symptoms).  My husband has no
symptoms... and hasn't had any testing.

So... Did it/can it skip a generation since my Mom and my daughter have CD
or does this mean that my husband must
 have the gene... because I didn't?

Thank you for any insight.  Genetics is confusing.

Dosha Anderson
Texas

*Please provide references to back up claims of a product being GF or not GF*