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Date: | Mon, 30 Sep 2002 11:50:16 -0600 |
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>As for falling standards, there are paradoxical data. In terms
>of absolute performance, IQ test scores are today a full standard
>deviation higher than they were 40 or 50 years ago. The tests
>have had to be renormed for that reason. The raw score that
>would have gotten you an IQ of 100 in 1950 would get you an 85
>today. This is a rather substantial improvement. On the other
>hand, SAT scores have fallen, to where they have had to be
>renormed (especially the verbal scores) in the other direction.
I don't want to go too far off topic with this, but couldn't this be
explained by our societal 'shift' from written communication to electronic
communication? In 1950 I would guess that the vast majority of information
was obtained from reading (a rather slow - yet effective assimilation
process), whereas nowadays the vast majority comes from tv and/or other
'visual' sources. Could be that the total quantity of info we are exposed
to during our lifetimes has increased manyfold, but the 'practice' one
obtained from being taught the "3 R's" during the 50's has been greatly
reduced - hence the drop in verbal scores.
I was discussing this with a co-worker the other day, and she said on MTV
(not exactly a bastion of learning to begin with :) they intentionally
mispell words since most of their audience can only read 'street spelling'.
(I dunno. I've often felt english could be spelled more fonetikly :)
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