On Wed, 1 May 2002, Tom Barber wrote:

> I do find it a bit of a stretch that humans 50,000 years ago (about the time
> early man was reaching Australia) were unaware of grains. I find it more
> likely that some grains might have been eaten in season, although probably
> very little compared to agricultural folk.

I think you're right.  In fact, if preagricultural people weren't
eating grains at all, it makes no sense that they would abruptly
begin cultivating them.  What makes more sense is that
agriculture shifted them from a marginal sort of adjunct food to
a staple.

Todd Moody
[log in to unmask]