Wolfgang Lutz, in his article "The Colonisation of Europe and Our Western
Diseases," argues that the French Paradox is explained by the French having
consumed grains longer, and having had more time to adapt to them.

My theory on the paradox is based on the consumption of trans fats. Do the
French consume this at all? They use butter, not margarine. They don't deep
fry their foods. Or didn't until McDonald's and their ilk moved in. But on
the other hand, the British like deep fried foods. And do they not consume
margarine over butter? The British do use lard in their baking, but it
wouldn't surprise me if hydrogenated vegetable oils, like America's Crisco,
are gaining ground.

Don.