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Subject:
From:
Jean-Louis Tu <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Mon, 7 Apr 1997 18:22:28 +0200 (MET DST)
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> Bruno:

> I don't really understand this question. Please explain if I haven't
> understood you correctly. To me it sounds it's pretty much the same
> thing, as soaking grains makes them sprout, and sprouting is done by
> soaking the grains ???


Completely immersed grains do not sprout. Moreover, it may happen in
some cases that I eat soaked, unsprouted grains:

 -if the soaking time was too long, or the temperature incorrect (I
read that rices requires 28 degree C, which we cannot obtain in
Paris), only a small proportion of the grains will sprout, if any.
 -some persons prefer the taste of certain grains (like chickpeas,
rice) when unsprouted.
 -once, after the soaking period and just before rinsing the oat
grains (I use Max Labbe's commercial sprouter [germoir en terre
cuite]), the flavor was so pleasant that I couldn't resist eating
them.

Thus my question: "to eat or not to eat?". Of course, in the framework
of instincto theory, that question is not really relevant, the answer
would be "if it tastes great, go ahead". But what if they taste "not
bad, but not really delicious"? Moreover, I am not so confident in my
instinct, especially if I don't know whether the grains are denatured
or not (and even so, we ignore to what extent artificial
selection affects the taste).

Best wishes,

Jean-Louis


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