> >For example, there is evidence that preagricultural

<snip>

> people in the Near East started to gathering grains
> about 17,000 years ago.
> And they they started farming them about 10-11,000

<snip snip>

I'm confused. If farming of grains began 10-11,000
year ago (agriculture), and the Near Easterners began
using them 17,000 years ago (pre-), wouldn't that be "pre-agricultural"??
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