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Hi All--

Well, it's been a long 6 years of living with a celiac diagnosis based only
on the fact that some of my gastro symptoms improved on the GF diet. Blood
and biopsy x2 were sent to Mayo Clinic for evaluation and came back
negative, but gluten/wheat has an almost deadly effect on my liver, so I'm
still strictly GF. In October, I was enrolled in a research study through
National Institutes of Health regarding my immune system deficiency. When
the results came back in November, a number of genetic tests indicated that
not only do I *not* have celiac disease, I also do not have any autoimmune
process going on. Too, for the first time in my life, my IgE was elevated,
though my allergist here says I'm not allergic to anything except one mold.
More tests are forthcoming....

What I need to know from anyone who can give me a detailed explanation is,
why is the hydrolyzed wheat used in McDonald's FFs and HBs considered gluten
free? I thought there was an explanation on one of the national
organizations' web site, but if so, it's not there now.

I've been eating McD's FFs and HBs periodically, with no problem at all. On
Saturday, though, I was rushed and didn't have time to eat a good lunch out,
so I picked up a medium McD FF on the go. I was sick later that evening, all
day on Sunday and half of Monday. According to a definition I found on the
web, "hydrolyzed" is simply breaking a bond in a molecule by adding water.

I'm trying to understand what it is about wheat/gluten that causes such a
dramatic reaction in me, affecting my liver and not my small intestine. Of
course, it only takes one employee to make a mistake and fry chicken nuggets
in the FF oil, so that could explain my reaction on Saturday, but in
general, I'm wanting to know why hydrolyzed wheat is acceptable.

Any information anyone is willing to share would be truly appreciated!
~~Ayn in Alabama

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