In a message dated 6/21/00 9:12:55 AM Eastern Daylight Time, [log in to unmask]
writes:
>
> Your repetitive announcement that there is no evidence that innocent
> people have gotten the death penalty is unmitigated racism and
> dishonesty. The record shows that the US judicial system supported
> legalized slavery and/or government enforced segregation for centuries.
> This evidently is not evidence enough of racial bias for you to accept.
Yabadaba, my dear little race hustling pimp!:-) Since I know from past
experience your unwillingness to address the topics presented, preferring to
instead resort to mau mauing misrepresentation, dilation of definition, lies,
and distractive hyperbole, I will simply make a few quick points.
This topic is, and has been, about judicially approved capital punishment
as carried out since its reinstatement in 1976(?). If you wish to discuss
past US slavery (or even current African/Asia slavery) or segregation take
the advise of Ad Hominem Dan of the Yukon ( I guess he has been able to find
his way out of the woods by now -- at least the literal woods?) and start a
separate thread. Or if you simply wish to create a grandiose condemnation of
all things American, do so without attempting to claim it has relevance to
the current topic.
> The fact that primarily White law enforcement personnel continuously
> murder minorities in the street is also not a factor in your statistical
> methods, neither. In your statistics, these death penalty victims
> were all without evidence of being innocent people put to death.
> There is also no accounting in your death penalty 'fairness'
> measurements of all those lynchings in US history, neither?
Irrelevant to the topic of capital punishment since 1976(?), but can you
provide any numbers for
police killings, the race of the cop, the race of the person killed, whether
the killing was justified, etc.? Please, no anecdotes.
An aside: Is it reasonable to conclude that where there is a higher
percentage of violent crime there will be a higher percentage of police
shootings of individuals engaged in violent criminal activity?
> You choose to ride one, out of place single statistic to buttess your
> racism- that slightly over 50% put to death are Black, while that
> somewhat approximates the number of those that are convicted of murder
> who are also Black. This is evidence enough for a fair judicial
> system's application of law? Never mind history or anythng else?
This is the standard approach of left dressers such as yourself who have
in the past shown themselves to harbor strong fascist tendencies. To be
called "racist" by you simply means I don't walk in lock step with your
hate-filled, mean spirited fantasy view of the world. The "history" is that
no one can point to a single case of an innocent person having been executed
since the reinstatement of capital punishment. Of course that does not mean
that there are not many like you who probably go to bed each night praying
that an innocent person will soon be executed -- preferably in Texas and
before the election of Prince George.:-)
> Why stop here with your racist statistical analysis?
This is race hustler code for "the numbers don't support our mau mauing
-- lets call um racist!".:-)
> Explain why
> slightly over 50% of murders are committed by Blacks?
> I don't want to wreck your statistics too much, but could one factor be
> that when police murder suspects in the street, it doesn't even get
> included in the murder statistics you use?
Wreak away, they're not my statistics. As for the rest of your
unsubstantiated racist fantasies that follow, provide the numbers that would
tend to back them up and THEN try to tie them into the topic of judicially
approved capital punishement as practiced since its reinstatement. As it is,
the constant playing of the race card does nothing more than harden the
position of those who may otherwise agree to support the elimination of the
death penalty.
Yours,
Issodhos
> Or how about some other ways to add statistics together. Let's add
> in all the children that die of abuse, manslaughter cases, etc.
> Could the bias be in the very definition of what legally constitutes
> murder? Kind of like the difference between how powder cocaine and
> crack abuse is racially structured into the law as 2 separate offenses,
> instead of 1?
>
> The percentage of wrongful deaths attributed to Blacks as compared to
> White then begins to fall in percentage. It won't fall to being an
> equal correlation to the Black percentage of the population. Because
> crimes of violence are correlated to poverty, and not skin color.
>
> Blacks, living in much worse poverty, are still going to be committing
> violent crimes in a greater percent than the White population, which
> doesn't suffer the same low levels of income. Plus, the racist
> application of laws for non violent crimes, exposes a much larger
> percentage of Blacks to the violence of the penal system, schools for
> murder.
>
> Here's another statistic you should plug into your phony statistical
> erasure of racism from within the judicial system. Try calculating
> murder committed by a White run penal and judicial system that promotes
> HIV and rape within prison walls. Juggle that around in your
> calculator for a while. Now, what percentage of Blacks get the death
> penalty?
> Yours,
> Tony
|