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Date: | Wed, 19 May 2004 12:53:09 EDT |
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I'd love to be back in Alaska, since the trees have come out by now. Since I
have not installed AOL 9 yet (have not been home long enough), I've been
hesitant to write, because this might not be in plain text, although that's how it
is typed.
Isn't Reverse T3 counted with T3 in lab tests, especially when no test for
rT3 is done?
In my Celtic ancestry family (males and females) the bone loss has come when
there was too much Reverse T3 and not enough real T3 to support all that was
needed for the osteoblasts to build up the bone after the osteoclasts removed
the calcium. That might not be the only cause, but the timing seems
significant.
In one family case, several factors including too much estrogen for too many
years, interfered with the woman getting enough T3 into cells to do what T3
needs to do, and her osteoporosis is just one of the terrible results.
I want to know where "they" (whoever puts out such claims) get people with
"too much T3" to prove it causes calcium loss, and did they test how much of
that T3 was useful T3, and did they rule out other possible causes, like
nutritional contents of diets, T3 receptor site blockers, etc. I'm getting really
skeptical of a lot of poorly done medical experiments with groups of people that
are being cited as excuses to make us sicker. The elders in my family and
among friends have become MediCare and insurance milk cows -- just by doctors
keeping their normal T3 suppressed. Osteoporosis is not the only problem they
have developed.
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