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Date: | Fri, 8 Apr 2005 10:16:23 -0500 |
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Helen,
I will send my reply and your note to the list. Yowza!! That's a long read
hahahaha. Much to consider though. I sort of cheated and looked for the
scripture reference in Matthew I referred to after reading a good deal. I
agree with the theologic and Christology comparisons, there is obviously
two differing views or else Christ would not have had issue with the
theologians of the day. I will read more in this. I think Ned wrapped up
my thoughts I had prior to posting the question. When there is an apparent
conflict, one must look at the basis in which we interpret it. In this
case the word "believe" in John's reference means more than simpely
understanding, agreeing and even believing Christ is Christ, but that if
one truely does believe and have faith, one will do what Matthew 25:31-46
says. I also remember Grant making reference that the original word
translated "believeth" having the "eth" indicates a constant state of
believing, and not once having believed.
brad
on 08:18 AM 4/8/2005, Helen said:
Hi, Brad!
This is the url to a very long study which includes explanation of your
question.
I'm sending it offlist to you, but if you feel the list may want to read
it, please share it with them. It took me parts of two days to read it,
and there was much in it that was new to me. However, it has been a
blessing. By the way, it is in text only with no graphics!
http://www.thetruth.homestead.com/Jesus_Biblical_Interpretation.htm
Love,
Helen
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