>Humans have lived with technology (beginning with stone tools) for
>processing animals for food (whether scavenging or hunting is a focus of
>debate in the archaeological community right now when you go back to homo
>erectus and beyond) at least 1.8 million years, perhaps 2.5 million.
>[Blumenchine 1992; Megarry 1995] Tool use is an integral part of the
>definition of humans that evolutionary biologists have used for a long time
>(along with bipedalism, large brain size, extremely extended
>infanthood-to-maturity due to the large brain size which takes many years
>to develop, and other characteristics I do not currently remember).
>>In essence, chimpanzees are intelligent enough to engage in social hunting
>>behavior they were not instinctively designed for, just like humans.
>Is this simply your personal opinion, or can you supply us with a reference
>to substantiate the statement? If you can supply a reference, I will
>attempt to track it down when I have spare time, and if it is from
>reputable scientific literature, I will report back to this listgroup
>whether it agrees or disagrees with your statement.
>>Humans have taken it one step further, however, by cooking. Fortunately,
>>chimpanzees have enough sense not to cook flesh before eating it."
>I would like to hear your scientific criteria for "having enough sense not
>to cook flesh." Widespread cooking by humans has been around for
>approximately 125,000 years [James 1989; Davidson and Noble 1993] and at
>least 230,000 to 460,000 years since first use [Megarry 1995; Wu and Lin
>1983; Patel 1995]--more than likely enough time for genetic adaptation to
>have taken place to for the foods that were cooked. The Cavalli-Sforza
>research team who has helped pioneer the field of population team states
>based on their survey, "The History and Geography of Human Genes," that
>50,000-100,000 years is probably representative of the time span over which
>most current human polymorphisms (variants) of human genes have evolved
>[Cavalli-Sforza 1994].
Let me ask you this. Does the above means that we might have a genetic
adaptation to cooked foods? Is there any way to prove or disprove this? In
case we did have an adaptation to it, would it mean some people, caused by
their ancestors living for many generations on cooked foods, could need
cooked foods? I have heard this before, but never heard a good explanation.
I would pose the same question to RAFers. What is it about it that could
potentially be of any value? I want to make it clear I am just asking. My
lack of knowledge is the reason why I ask. Is there any rational explanation
fof the claims that some people feel better or improve their health when
eating some RAF? Some nutrient or something?
I thank anybody who feels like spending time sharing his/her knowledge with me.
Saludos desde Argentina,
aXel
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